No. Historically, a trade treaty is a bilateral agreement on the regulation of goods.
It's not about internal politics, or at least it shouldn't be. And it certainly is not about controlling the actions of one nation's industry inside other nations.
Could you be more specific about the word "historical", so we can see how easily falsified that argument is? Give us a time period, and then we can go look at a bunch of treaties and see the extent to which they're specifically about goods.
It would also be helpful if you could define "goods".
If we find examples of similarly intrusive agreements in older treaties, will you be prepared to concede the argument?